Forum > View Topic
by Ashraf Laidi
Posted: Feb 22, 2010 5:00
Comments: 3054
Posted: Feb 22, 2010 5:00
Comments: 3054
Forum Topic:
GBP
Discuss GBP
I posted my question on your Premium Twitter (a member) page, but got no reply, so I will repost here.
Could you please briefly explain (or at least comment on) the price action of the GBP/USD pair.
I would think that the GBP would naturally fall in a UK higher-than-expected inflationary environment (as well as with new QE actions) where there is no hope of an increase in interest rates due to a sagging economy, especially against the USD simultaneously in a "risk-off" environment; yet the pair rose, and quite aggressively. Is there something I don't see/know here? Any explanation would be appreciated from you views.
Thanks!
Jardi
I find this statement laughable. I think the "recession" is hardly begun, nothing like the severity of the 89/95 recession yet. And what evidence is there for emerging out of recession, I mean really, this statement is irresponsible and misleading.
EURGBP and EURUSD do not always move in tandem. We have had a very good track record in EURGBP. But you are correct about this last case. I tend to find GBPUSD highly volatile, more so than EURUSD. and EURGBP the least volatile of all three.
Ashraf
simply short gbp/usd 1.5410 with stop 1.5440 for 1.5300-50..
i think this premium trial is over for me:-(